MCQs and Answers of Indian Polity & Governance | Preamble of the Indian Constitution

“Indian Polity Governance” is one of the important parts of Exams like IAS, State PSC, SSC and other similar competitive exams. thelivelearns.com presents a complete set of Indian Polity Governance in the form of Practice sets which consist of 500+MCQs.

In the parliamentary system of government provided by the constitution, the President is the nominal executive authority and Prime Minister is the real executive authority. Where as the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is greater than that of its prodecessor of india. Let us study more about Prime Minister of India and Supreme Court in the form of questions and answers.

Table of Contents

Q 1 – Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

A – Baba Saheb Ambedkar

B – Mahatma Gandhi

C – Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

D – Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer : D

Explanation

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was also the first President Independent India. Hide Answer

Q 2 – Which one of the following Articles describes the Independent Judiciary?

A – Article 149

B – Article 124

C – Article 251

D – Article 352

Answer : B

Explanation N/A 

Q 3 – Which among the following is incorrectly matched?

List AList B

A – The right to freedom of speech and expression1) 19(a)

B – The right to assemble peaceably and without arm2) 19(c)

C – The right to reside in any part of the country3) 19(e)

D – The right to practice any profession or occupation4) 19(g)

Answer : B

Explanation

It is 19(b) Hide Answer

Q 4 – Freedom of religion to individuals means to ?

A – Exit from their religion

B – Embrace another religion

C – Have the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently

D – All a, b, & c

Answer : D

Explanation

N/A Hide Answer

Q 5 – Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.

2. The Rajya Sabha can be prorogued by the President.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A – Only 1

B – Only 2

C – Both

D – Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C

Explanation

N/A Hide Answer

Q 6 – Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has ALMOST equal power in all areas of legislation with Lok Sabha.

2. In the case of conflicting legislation, there is provision of a joint sitting of the two houses.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A – Only 1

B – Only 2

C – Both

D – Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C

Explanation N/A 

Q 7 – In which of the following Years, the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed?

A – 1989

B – 1999

C – 2001

D – 2010

Answer : A

Explanation

An Act was implemented to prevent the commission of offences of atrocities if any practiced against the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Show Answer

Q 8 – What is the proper reason for relocating the toxic and hazardous industries to developing countries?

A – To take advantage of the weaker laws in poor countries

B – To take advantage of the availability of workers at low wages

C – Want to keep their own countries safe and clean

D – To take advantages of available natural resources

Answer : A

Explanation

N/A Hide Answer

Q 9 – Ship-breaking and dismantling is a hazardous industry that is growing rapidly in South Asia including India; which place in India is in news of this industry?

A – Alang

B – Calcutta

C – Cuttack

D – Murmagoa

Answer : A

Explanation

Alang is located in Gujarat. Hide Answer

Q 10 – The cause of gender inequality is the patriarchal system of our society; which one of the following statements correctly explains the term patriarchal?

A – A system that believes in equal rights for men and women

B – A system where equal rights and opportunities have been given to men and women

C – A system that works for the empowerment and freedom of women

D – A system in which men have all power and women are believed to be created to do housework and nurture the children

Answer : D

Explanation

In patriarchal system, men are in authority over women in every aspect of society. Hide Answer

Q 11 – In which year Communist Party Marxist (CPI-M) Party was set up?

A – 1885

B – 1964

C – 1980

D – 1984

Answer : B

Explanation

In 1964, the Communist Party Marxist emerged from a split from the Communist Party of India. Hide Answer

Q 12 – Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to the Chipko Movement?

A – The movement was carried out during 1990s, in some parts of Uttarakhand

B – The movement was initially carried out by the villagers to protest against the practices of commercial logging that the government had permitted

C – The movement was for the protest and to protect the trees, for which the villagers used a novel tactic i.e. they used to hug the trees to prevent them from being cut down; this method became popular as Chipko Movement.

D – This movement was for the protection of the biodiversity of the Himalayan region.

Answer : A

Explanation

The movement was carried out during 1970s, in some parts of Uttarakhand. Hide Answer

Q 13 – Which one of the following statements explains the Principle of Proportionate Justice?

A – It gives priority to individuals equality in the society

B – It declares that the people should get the same reward for the same work

C – It requires recognition of different efforts and skills while determining rewards and burdens

D – Individuals liberty is inviolable and the state has no business to interfere

Answer : C

Explanation N/A

Q 14 – Which part of the Constitution of India does contain the provision regarding the citizenship?

A – Part-II

B – Part-III

C – Part-IV

D – Part V

Answer : A

Explanation N/A 

Q 15 – Which among the following was the major reason of expansion of democracy in the world during 1950s?

A – End of Colonialism

B – End of Monarchies

C – Revival of democracy in several countries of Latin America

D – End of Soviet control on countries of Eastern Europe

Answer : A

Explanation N/A 

Q 16 – Which among the following is the most essential feature of the democracy?

A – Ruler elected by the people

B – Independent judiciary

C – People enjoyed basic political freedoms

D – Election after every five years

Answer : A

Explanation

People vote to elect their government. 

Q 17 – What is the educational Qualification for a candidate to contest election of Lok Sabha in India?

A – Post Graduate

B – Graduate

C – 10th

D – No educational qualification is required as such

Answer : D

Explanation N/A 

Q 18 – How many members of Lok Sabha are appointed by the President?

A – 10

B – 13

C – 7

D – 2

Answer : D

Explanation N/A 

Q 19 – Which one of the following statements suggests the best that the authority of the Constitution is higher than that of the parliament?

A – The constitution was framed much before the parliament came into existence

B – The constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament

C – The constitution specifies how parliament is to be formed and what are its powers

D – The constitution makers were more eminent and qualified leaders than the members of the parliament

Explanation N/A

Q 20 – Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution prohibits sale-purchase of human beings?

A – Article 24

B – Article 23

C – Article 22

D – Article 21

Answer : B

Explanation

Article 23 is read as Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labor are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. Show Answer

Answer : C

Q 21 – Which of the following commission was appointed by the Central Government on Union-State relations in 1983?

a. Sarkariya commission

b. Dutt commission

c. Setalvad commissionAds by Jagran.TV

d. Rajamannar commission

Answer: a

Explanation:  Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government of India to examine the central-state relationship on various portfolios. Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria (Chairman of the commission), was a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Q 22- Which of the following taxes are levied by the Union government but collected and appropriated by the states?

a. Stamp duties

b. Excise duties on medical and toilet materials

c. Sales tax

d. a and b

Answer: d

Explanation: The revenue generated from the Stamp duties and Excise duties on medical and toilet materials is imposed by the Central Government but collected and kept by the respective state government.

Q 23- Which of the following taxes are imposed and collected by the state government?

a. Estate duty

b. Sales tax

c. Land revenue

d. All the above

Answer: d

Explanation: Taxes imposed by the state government are; Sales Tax and VAT, Professional Tax, Luxury Tax, Entertainment Tax, Motor Vehicles Tax, Tax on Vehicles Entering State, Tax on Agricultural Income, Tax on Land and Buildings and Tax on Mineral Rights.

Q 24- Which of the following tax is levied and collected by the Union government but the proceeds are distributed between the Union and states?

a. Sales tax

b. Income tax

c. Estate duty

d. Land revenue

Answer: b

Explanation: Income tax is imposed by the central government under the Income Tax Act, 1961. This tax is distributed among the states on the recommendations of the finance commission.

Q 25- Which of the following duty is levied and collected by the Union government?

a. Custom duty

b. Excise duty

c. Estate duty

d. All the above

Answer: d

Explanation: All the direct taxes are imposed by the central government. Direct taxes are; income tax, wealth tax, corporation tax. Excise and custom duty were indirect tax but merged with GST.

Q 26- Which of the following article deals with the election of the Vice-president?

a. Article 64

b. Article 68

c. Article 66

d. Article 62

Answer: c


Explanation: Article 66 deals with the election of the Vice-president of India.

Q 27- Which of the article deals with the grants in aid by the Union government to the states?

a. Article 270

b. Article 280

c. Article 275

d. Article 265

Answer: c

Explanation: Article 275 is related to Grants in aid from the Union government to certain States at the time of requirement.This fund allocation depends on the discretion of the central government. It shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Q 28- Who can remove the Vice-President from his office?

a. President

b. Prime minister

c. Parliament

d. Legislative assemblies of the state

Answer: c

Explanation: The Indian Parliament has the power to remove the Vice President of India.

Q 29- The Vice-President is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the ……..?

a. Rajya Sabha

b. Lok Sabha

c. Planning Commission

d. National Development Council

Answer: a

Explanation:  The Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and acts as President when the latter is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other cause.

Q 30- The term of office of the Vice-president is as follows?

a. 6 years

b. 4 years

c. 7 years

d. 5 years

Answer: d

Explanation: The Vice-president is elected for the period of the 5 years, although he/she can resign before the completion of the tenure. 

Q 31- The Prime Minister is appointed by which one of the following?

(a) Attorney general of India

(b) President

(c) Vice-president

(d) Chief justice of India

Answer. b

Q 32- Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers?

(a) Article 76

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 75

(d) Article 72

Answer. c

Q 33- Who among the following shall communicate to the president all the decisions of the council of ministers under article 78?

(a) Home minister

(b) Prime minister

(c) Attorney general

(d) Finance minister

Answer. b

Q 34- The total number of ministers including the prime ministers shall not exceed-

(a) 20% members of the Lok sabha

(b) 10% members of the Lok sabha

(c) 25% members of the Lok sabha

(d) 15% members of the Lok sabha

Answer. d

Q 35. The Supreme Court of India at present contains the following number of Judges?

(a) 25 judges

(b) 31 judges

(c) 20 judges

(d) 30 judges

Answer. b

Q 36. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court?

(a) Original and Appellate Jurisdiction

(b) Appointment of ad-hoc judges

(c) Judicial review

(d) All the above

Answer. d

Q 37. Why Prime Minister of India takes Oath of Office and Secrecy?Q 6). Who among the following appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court?

(a) Prime minister

(b) Vice-president

(c) Home minister

(d) President

Ans. d

Q 38. Which article of the constitution of India provides the composition and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Article 137-141

(b) Article 144

(c) Article 126

(d) Article 124

Answer. d

Q 39. Mr. T.S. Thakur is the ……………….Chief Justice of India.

(a) 41st

(b) 42nd

(c) 43rd

(d) 44th

Answer. c

Q 40. The National Judiciary Appointments Commission (NJAC) consists of the following persons?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Two senior most Supreme Court judges

(c) The Union Minister of Law and Justice

(d) All the above

Answer. d

41. The executive power of the Union is vested in which one of the below?

A. Prime minister

B. Home ministerAds by Jagran.TV

C. Vice-president

D. President

Answer: D

42. Which one of the following article deals with the pardoning power of the President?

A. Article 71

B. Article 74

C. Article 72

D. Article 75

Answer: C

43. Which one of the following article deals with the tenure of the President?

A. Article 53

B. Article 56

C. Article 55

D. Article 52

Answer: B

44. The impeachment of the President is carried by which one of the following?

A. Attorney general

B. Members of the legislative

C. Parliament

D. Prime minister

Answer: C

45. Which of the following article deals with the impeachment of the President?

A. Article 65

B. Article 62

C. Article 64

D. Article 61

Answer: D

UPSC, UPSC Exams Types, LBSNAA, Eligibility for IAS, Age Limits, Syllabus and preparation

46. The Pressure groups are:

A. Political organisations

B. Economic organisation

C. Moral organisations

D. Organisations of universal character

Answer: D

47. The Pressure Group tries to promote the interests of their members by exerting pressure on:

A. Executive

B. Judiciary

C. Legislative

D. All the above

Answer: D

48. Which of the following are known as Pressure Groups?

A. Trade unions

B.  Caste groups

C. Tribal organisations

D. All the above

Answer: D

49. which of the following is not a feature of pressure group?

A. It tries to influence from outside

B. Its membership is large

C. It actively joins political parties

D. Its members can join any number of groups

Answer: C

50. Which of the following is not a method used by the pressure group for achieving its objectives?

A. It finances political parties

B. It organises demonstrations

C. It clearly aligns with a political party

D. It tries to influence policy makers

Answer:  C

Dear Students, the GK Team of LIVE LEARNS is presenting you a set of 50 MCQs based on President & Pressure Groups. This is can help you a lot in the upcoming exams. So go through this quiz and evaluate yourself.

1 thought on “MCQs and Answers of Indian Polity & Governance | Preamble of the Indian Constitution”

Leave a Comment